Where was the standard for the “Word of God” before 1611?

The Word of God did surely exist somewhere as promised, say, in 1610, in one collection, possibly in Hebrew for the O.T. and Greek for the N.T. Possibly in Latin. There was not one known copy with evidence based on preservation. But the truth is I don’t know except for the promises.

That was nothing new in the history of Scripture. There was a time when a king inherited the throne, and ordered the Temple to be restored, and the priests found a copy of scriptures, hidden in the walls of the structures they were restoring. This righteous king called for repentance and to lift the scripture up again across the land.

No one could have pointed you to them, but there they were. In the case of the KJB

Casiodoro de Reina de Proel En el dominio públ...

Casiodoro de Reina de Proel

, God chose a different way to restore a collection of inspired Canon that you could point to. Therefore I agree with the use of the term Restoration Bible used by Stephen to (I presume) refer to the KJB. That’s why I also agree with the terminology of “restore God’s perfect Word” because it had lost its place.

The Word was certainly restored to its proper residence in one recognized Canon, that not only met the test by fire of its use by Spirit-filled people for more than three centuries in its language with no other translation even contemplated.

The fact of the scripture’s restoration to its place of honor with the KJB is seen in the fact that it quickly supplanted what you could call other “competing” translations, even beyond the reach of British or Anglican authority, and even beyond the “spirit-filled”. It was quickly dominant I believe even by the Calvinists of the day, the Puritans, and others.

Another evidence is the way it dominated the English language. Isaac Asimov once wrote that it was Shakespeare who stabilized the English language because the KJB was “just a translation”, which shows he doesn’t know so much about history as he puts on, or that he is “willfully ignorant”. Not for nothing he even says it, because it shows he recognized the Authorized Version/KJB as having dominance in the English language.

I can’t speak for Polish or Chinese, but Spanish certainly shows this as well. I’ve read the Casiodoro de Reina from times more or less contemporary to the KJB, and the Spanish is very, very different from the 1960 Revision, or even the 1905.

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