Jesus the Word of God

Why does John refer to Jesus Christ as “the Word” in John 1?

John 14:6 Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me.

John 17:17 Sanctify them through thy truth: thy word is truth.

Both Jesus in the flesh, and the word of God are called “truth” (as an object). Not just that they are true, but they ARE truth.

Teno Groppi said: “I’d say the KJB is the written version of Jesus Christ.” http://www.baptistlink.com/godandcountry/html/kjv.0

That sounds like a good way to put it.

God wrapped up his identity inside the word of God. You could say he “conflated” (“to bring together; meld or fuse”) the two (himself and his word), and the word of God was made flesh, the Word of God.

Not “just” the KJB, since God was from before he even said “Let there be light” of course. But even of the beginning we have John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

God is of course independent of each “manifestation” of his word, whether the Torah at the time of Moses, or the historical books and the prophetic books as they were written, and the New Testament books as they were also written.

But he has made plain that God the Son is “embodied” in the written Word, the word of God.

God made it as plain as he could. We are told from the scripture that he has magnified his word “above all his name”.

Psalms 138:2 I will worship toward thy holy temple, and praise thy name for thy lovingkindness and for thy truth: for thou hast magnified thy word above all thy name.

In Isaiah he tells us that if anyone speaks anything “not according to this word”, there is no light in them:

Isaiah 8:19 And when they shall say unto you, Seek unto them that have familiar spirits, and unto wizards that peep, and that mutter: should not a people seek unto their God? for the living to the dead?
Isaiah 8:20 To the law and to the testimony: if they speak not according to this word, it is because there is no light in them.

Okay now.

If John 1:1 and John 1:14 and I John 5:7 (“the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost”) have nothing to do with the scripture, then what do you think they are doing there?

And if God made such an important issue –above all others!– of his written word, as being the “scriptural manifestation” for us of the “person” of Jesus Christ, how can anyone claim that he had no interest in supervising its integrity throughout the ages?

John 5:39 Search the scriptures; for in them ye think ye have eternal life: and they are they which testify of me.

But, now “Phantom-Originals-Only” (aka “POO”) defenders have to look for “the basic essential doctrines” in the corruptions of man, by the admission of all “Phantom-Originals-Only” (aka “POO”) defenders.

Jeremiah 17:5 Thus saith the LORD; Cursed be the man that trusteth in man, and maketh flesh his arm, and whose heart departeth from the LORD.

For many years as a Christian I had no idea about the importance of the versions issue and did not even think about it, although I always used the AV (KJB), and of course did realize there were some verses in other versions like the NIV with suspect wording.

It’s a significant factor that people who actually consider it a central issue tend to go in one direction. In other words, anyone who thinks God would have only one Bible today without confusion, settle on just one of the “choices”.

Compare it for understanding to the situation in creationism–evolution debates. True agnostics are rare that both (1) say they are undecided and don’t know if there is a God, and at the same time (2) are studying the subject intensely. That’s because they almost always spend little time finding themselves in the camp of believers.

The Word is the final authority for deciding among doctrines.

Deviations from “the Word” (aka “the word of God”) in POO-versions based on the false POO doctrine (Phantom Originals Only) have already been used to support deviations of doctrines from “the faith of our fathers”.

—trutherator

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